CertHead

CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1101) practice questions

933 exam-style questions across all 5 official exam domains, with full answer explanations. Try the samples below, then drill any domain.

Practice by domain

Sample questions

Question 1 · Difficulty 3/5

A technician is replacing a laptop keyboard on a model whose palmrest is integrated with the keyboard as a single assembly. The service manual for this specific model states that keyboard screws secure the assembly to the chassis before the retention clips engage. In what order should the technician remove the keyboard screws relative to the retention clips? (Select the best answer.)
  1. Release the retention clips first, then remove the keyboard screws, because clips are under spring tension and will crack if screws are removed first.
  2. Remove the keyboard screws first, then release the retention clips, because the screws hold the assembly rigid and the clips can bind or break if the assembly flexes while screws still engage.
  3. Remove the keyboard screws first, then release the retention clips, then tilt the assembly toward the display hinge to relieve ribbon cable tension before lifting.
  4. Remove the retention clips first, then remove the keyboard screws, then lift the assembly straight up to avoid damaging the ribbon cable.
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: B

Remove the keyboard screws first, then release the retention clips, because the screws hold the assembly rigid and the clips can bind or break if the assembly flexes while screws still engage.
When a service manual specifies that keyboard screws anchor the assembly to the chassis before retention clips engage, the correct sequence is to remove the screws first, then release the clips. Removing the screws first keeps the assembly rigid while clips are pried free, preventing the palmrest plastic from flexing and cracking the clip seats. The choice to release retention clips first, then remove keyboard screws, reverses the concern: clips are not under significant spring tension that causes breakage from screw removal alone; the damage risk is prying clips under screw load. The choice to remove screws first, then release clips, then tilt the assembly toward the display hinge is wrong because tilting toward the hinge is not the correct ribbon-cable relief technique and contradicts the service manual sequence. The choice to remove retention clips first, then remove keyboard screws, then lift the assembly straight up inverts the screw-then-clip order specified by the service manual for this assembly type.

Question 2 · Difficulty 2/5

Which port does the Remote Desktop Protocol (RDP) use by default to accept incoming connections? (Select the best answer.)
  1. TCP 3306
  2. TCP 3389
  3. TCP 1433
  4. TCP 5900
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: B

TCP 3389
RDP listens on TCP 3389 by default, as defined by Microsoft's Remote Desktop Services implementation. TCP 3306 is the default port for MySQL, not RDP. TCP 1433 is the default port for Microsoft SQL Server. TCP 5900 is the default port for VNC (Virtual Network Computing), a different remote desktop technology.

Question 3 · Difficulty 3/5

A facilities manager is asking about the differences between Cat 7 and Cat 6a cabling for a new high-density data center build. Which characteristic correctly distinguishes Cat 7 from Cat 6a? (Select the best answer.)
  1. Cat 7 natively uses GG-45 or TERA connectors, while Cat 6a uses standard RJ-45 connectors.
  2. Cat 7 specifies shielding on each individual pair as well as an overall cable shield (S/FTP), while Cat 6a may be unshielded (U/UTP).
  3. Cat 7 is rated only to 600 MHz, while Cat 6a is rated to 750 MHz.
  4. Cat 7 supports 10 Gbps at 100 meters using the same U/UTP construction as Cat 6a, making shielding optional for both categories.
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: B

Cat 7 specifies shielding on each individual pair as well as an overall cable shield (S/FTP), while Cat 6a may be unshielded (U/UTP).
ISO/IEC 11801 defines Cat 7 (Class F) as requiring individually shielded pairs plus an overall braid or foil shield (S/FTP or PiMF construction) rated to 600 MHz, specifically to eliminate alien crosstalk. Cat 6a, by contrast, is available in both unshielded (U/UTP) and shielded (F/UTP) variants per TIA-568-C.2. The choice stating that Cat 7 natively uses GG-45 or TERA connectors while Cat 6a uses standard RJ-45 is wrong because that description is the reverse of what is stated; Cat 7 does natively use non-RJ-45 connectors such as GG-45 or TERA, while Cat 6a uses standard RJ-45, but the option presents this as a distinguishing characteristic incorrectly. The choice stating Cat 6a is rated to 750 MHz is wrong because Cat 6a is rated to 500 MHz, not 750 MHz (Cat 7 is rated to 600 MHz). The choice claiming Cat 7 supports 10 Gbps at 100 meters using the same U/UTP construction as Cat 6a and that shielding is optional for both is wrong because Cat 7 mandates S/FTP shielding by definition and does not share U/UTP construction with Cat 6a.

Question 4 · Difficulty 3/5

An organization runs workloads across two cloud environments: one using AWS EC2 instances and one using Heroku. The security team must determine which responsibilities shift between the two deployments. Compared to the AWS EC2 deployment, which additional security layer does the cloud provider assume responsibility for in the Heroku deployment? (Select the best answer.)
  1. Physical data center security
  2. Hypervisor and virtual machine isolation
  3. Guest operating system patching and runtime environment management
  4. Application code vulnerability remediation
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: C

Guest operating system patching and runtime environment management
AWS EC2 is IaaS; the customer must patch and harden the guest OS and manage the application runtime. Heroku is PaaS; the provider takes over responsibility for the OS and runtime stack, which are the layers that shift upward from customer to provider when moving from IaaS to PaaS. Physical data center security and hypervisor isolation are provider responsibilities in both IaaS and PaaS, so they do not represent a shift between these two models. Application code vulnerability remediation remains the customer's responsibility in PaaS (the customer owns the code), so that boundary does not shift either.

Question 5 · Difficulty 3/5

A technician has gathered all symptom information from a user and identified that the user's laptop was recently updated with new BIOS firmware. The technician now proposes that a misconfigured BIOS setting introduced by the update is causing the laptop to fail to boot. According to the CompTIA 6-step troubleshooting methodology, the technician is now entering which step? (Select the best answer.)
  1. Identify the problem
  2. Establish a theory of probable cause
  3. Test the theory to determine the cause
  4. Verify full system functionality
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: B

Establish a theory of probable cause
After gathering information in step 1, the technician moves to step 2: 'establish a theory of probable cause,' which involves using the collected information to propose a likely root cause, including questioning the obvious (such as a recent firmware change). 'Identify the problem' (step 1) has already concluded once the technician has the symptom data and change history. 'Test the theory' (step 3) has not begun because the technician has not yet acted on the hypothesis. 'Verify full system functionality' (step 5) occurs much later, after a confirmed fix has been implemented.

Ready to test yourself for real?

The free quiz pulls live questions from the same banks — no account required.

Start the free quiz